Hi,
Looking through the past F3 examiners’ reports in the June 2008 one I found the following phrase:
An accrual is an additional expense and hence will reduce profit, whereas a prepayment is an expense paid in advance so when adjusted will increase profit.
Can someone please explain how this is so? As I understand it, when dealing with expenses, the figure shown in the income statement will be the charge for the period. So assuming I have an accrued expense from the previous accounting period, the figure shown in the income statement for this period will be the charge for the period, not the actual charge plus the accrual from the last period, therefore net profit would be the same either way.
What am I doing wrong?
Thank you.